Daily Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz — March 27, 2026
Test Your Knowledge
30 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 30
Under the Paris Agreement, each party must submit progressively ambitious Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) at what interval?
The first Global Stocktake was completed at COP28 in Dubai (December 2023), providing the evidence base for the next NDC round. COP21 in Paris (12 December 2015) adopted the agreement with 196 parties; it entered into force on 4 November 2016 after ratification by 55 countries representing 55% of global emissions.
🎯 Concept Kit
India ratified on 2 October 2016 (Gandhi Jayanti). Related policies: LiFE mission launched at COP27 Sharm El-Sheikh (November 2022), Green Credit Programme notified October 2023 under EPA 1986.
Prelims 2023 asked about the Global Stocktake mechanism. Exam tip: UPSC tests the difference between NDCs (country-specific pledges) and the Global Stocktake (collective assessment) — they are complementary but distinct instruments.
The Kyoto Protocol (1997) used top-down binding targets; Paris shifted to bottom-up voluntary pledges.
Question 2 of 30
What is India’s emissions intensity reduction target from 2005 levels under NDC 3.0 (approved March 2026)?
India had already achieved a 36% reduction by 2020 per its Third Biennial Update Report to UNFCCC. India per-capita emissions stand at approximately 2.4 tonnes CO2, well below the global average of 6.3 tonnes — a fact India consistently cites in climate negotiations to justify its development-first approach.
🎯 Concept Kit
Key policy instruments supporting NDC 3.0: National Green Hydrogen Mission (Rs 19,744 crore, January 2023), Green Credit Programme (October 2023, under EPA 1986), Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (June 2023, under Energy Conservation Act 2001 as amended 2022), and NAPCC with 8 national missions (2008). The Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) scheme under NMEEE has avoided ~92 million tonnes of CO2.
Exam tip: Previous year questions have tested the difference between intensity-based and absolute emission targets — India follows the intensity-based approach, while the EU commits to absolute cuts.
Question 3 of 30
The International Solar Alliance (ISA), co-founded by India and France at COP21, has its headquarters at which location?
The ISA Framework Agreement entered into force on 6 December 2017. As of 2026, ISA has 125+ signatory countries and 107+ full members.
Ajay Mathur serves as the Director General since March 2021. ISA received UN Observer status in October 2018.
🎯 Concept Kit
The US withdrew from ISA on 7 January 2026. Key ISA programmes: One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG), Solar Risk Mitigation Initiative, and the Affordable Finance at Scale initiative.
Prelims 2021 tested ISA membership criteria. Exam tip: ISA has a unique India-France co-founding — this connects to GS2 (India-France strategic partnership, Indo-Pacific cooperation) alongside GS3 (renewable energy).
Previous year question (2018) asked about ISA founding location.
Question 4 of 30
Which of the following correctly defines the Panchamrit commitments announced by India at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021)?
India non-fossil capacity had already crossed 52.57% of installed capacity by February 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit
Exam tip: distinguish Panchamrit (COP26 political pledge) from NDC (formal UNFCCC submission) from Long-Term Low-Carbon Development Strategy (LT-LEDS, submitted November 2022 at COP27). UPSC Prelims 2023 tested Panchamrit targets.
Question 5 of 30
The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) regional connectivity scheme was launched under which parent policy?
Over four phases, UDAN operationalised 663 routes across 95 airports. However, only 7-10% of routes proved commercially viable after the Viability Gap Funding subsidy was withdrawn, exposing structural weaknesses in the demand model.
🎯 Concept Kit
Modified UDAN (March 2026, Rs 28,840 crore) addresses failures by extending VGF from 3 to 5 years and introducing Challenge Mode. Exam tip: UPSC may test the difference between UDAN (regional connectivity subsidy scheme) and NCAP 2016 (the overarching policy).
Also know NABH Nirman target of 220 airports and India current count (~150 operational airports).
Question 6 of 30
What is Viability Gap Funding (VGF) in the context of the Modified UDAN scheme?
The Regional Connectivity Fund, sourced from a Rs 5,000 levy per departing domestic flight and state government contributions (10-20%), finances the VGF. In the original UDAN, premature VGF withdrawal caused over 90% of routes to become unviable.
🎯 Concept Kit
The Challenge Mode mechanism allows states to compete for airport development funds based on readiness parameters. Exam tip: VGF connects to GS3 (Infrastructure, PPP models) and GS2 (Centre-State cooperation).
UPSC previously tested VGF in the context of highway BOT projects — understand it as a cross-sector instrument, not aviation-specific.
Question 7 of 30
The HAL Dornier 228, proposed for procurement under Modified UDAN, is manufactured at which HAL facility?
Over 125 aircraft have been produced as of 2022. It is a 19-seater twin-turboprop STOL aircraft suited for short unpaved runways.
Alliance Air operated India first commercial Dornier 228 flight on 12 April 2022 on the Dibrugarh-Pasighat route in Arunachal Pradesh, a milestone for NE regional connectivity.
🎯 Concept Kit
HAL achieved Rs 28,000+ crore revenue in FY2024-25 with an order book exceeding Rs 94,000 crore. Exam tip: HAL division-product-location mapping is a Prelims favourite.
Also know the distinction between Navratna (HAL, BEL) and Maharatna PSUs (ONGC, IOC) — financial autonomy limits differ significantly.
Question 8 of 30
Kavach, India indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, was developed by which organisation?
Kavach received SIL-4 certification (highest safety level under IEC 61508) in 2019 and costs approximately Rs 50 lakh per route-km — four to five times cheaper than Europe ETCS at roughly Rs 2 crore per km.
🎯 Concept Kit
Target: 44,000 route-km coverage by 2032. Budget 2024-25 allocated Rs 1,112.57 crore for Kavach.
The Railway Board signed a bulk contract in March 2024 for 3,000 route-km in South Central Railway. Exam tip: UPSC tests Kavach vs ETCS technology differences (UHF vs GSM-R, cost comparison) and SIL certification levels (SIL-1 lowest to SIL-4 highest under IEC 61508).
Previous year question tested RDSO role in railway standardization.
Question 9 of 30
What does Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certification signify for the Kavach train protection system?
Kavach received SIL-4 certification from an independent assessor in 2019. This places it at the same safety tier as the European Train Control System (ETCS), which is deployed across the EU, Japan, and South Korea for high-speed rail.
🎯 Concept Kit
India chose indigenous development over importing ETCS for two reasons: cost sovereignty (Rs 50 lakh vs Rs 2 crore/km) and technology independence. The 2023 National Rail Plan targets zero-fatality operations.
Vande Bharat trains are among the first with Kavach-compatible onboard equipment. Exam tip: UPSC may frame a question around why India did not adopt ETCS directly — answer lies in cost, spectrum availability (UHF vs GSM-R), and Aatmanirbhar Bharat policy.
Over 20 countries have expressed interest in Kavach, making it a potential defence-style export.
Question 10 of 30
The Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh (RRSK), a dedicated railway safety fund, was created in which year?
In the first five-year term, Rs 1,05,378 crore was actually spent. RRSK was extended for a second term from 2022-23 with Rs 45,000 crore allocated from GBS over five years.
🎯 Concept Kit
RRSK is a non-lapsable fund — meaning unspent allocations carry forward to the next fiscal year. Exam tip: distinguish RRSK (dedicated safety corpus) from the Railway Capital Expenditure (general capex in the Union Budget).
The non-lapsable nature parallels other dedicated funds like CAMPA (compensatory afforestation) and NIIF (national investment). GS3 (Infrastructure) and GS2 (governance of public safety) are the relevant papers.
Question 11 of 30
Which of the following is NOT a member of the G7?
The European Union participates as a permanent invitee (since 1981 Ottawa Summit) without full voting status, sometimes called a “non-enumerated member.” The G7 originated as the G6 at the Rambouillet Summit in France on 15-17 November 1975; Canada joined at San Juan, Puerto Rico in June 1976. Russia was admitted in 1998 to form the G8 but was suspended indefinitely in March 2014 following the annexation of Crimea.
🎯 Concept Kit
The G7 has no permanent secretariat, charter, or binding authority — it is purely informal. India has been a frequent G7 guest (2019 Biarritz, 2021 Cornwall, 2023 Hiroshima, 2026 Evian).
Exam tip: UPSC tests the G7 vs G20 distinction carefully — G20 includes India, China, Brazil, and other emerging economies while G7 is limited to advanced economies. Prelims 2023 asked about G7 composition.
Also distinguish from the Quad (US, India, Japan, Australia) — note Australia is in the Quad but not the G7.
Question 12 of 30
India holds the BRICS chairship in 2026 for the fourth time. When did India previously chair BRICS?
Chairship rotates alphabetically among the original five founding members: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa. The 2025 chair was Brazil (Brasilia Summit).
🎯 Concept Kit
The New Development Bank (NDB, HQ Shanghai, operational 2015, first president K.V. Kamath, current president Dilma Rousseff) has approved over USD 32 billion in loans. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) pool stands at USD 100 billion.
India 2026 flagships include promoting Digital Public Infrastructure (UPI, Aadhaar, DigiLocker) for the Global South. Exam tip: BRICS nations represent 45%+ of world population and approximately 37% of global GDP (PPP).
UPSC tests BRICS vs G7 as competing governance frameworks under GS2 (International Relations). Previous year questions have tested NDB headquarters and BRICS founding year.
Question 13 of 30
India established its first strategic partnership with a Western nation in
1998. Which country was it?
Critically, France did not impose sanctions after India Pokhran-II nuclear tests in May 1998, unlike the US (Glenn Amendment sanctions), Japan, and others. In February 2026, the partnership was elevated to “Special Global Strategic Partnership” — the highest tier in India bilateral framework, above the “Strategic Partnership” level held with most major powers.
🎯 Concept Kit
Nuclear cooperation: Jaitapur EPR reactors (6 x 1,650 MW, Maharashtra) and joint Small Modular Reactor R&D. Space: joint TRISHNA thermal imaging satellite (launch ~2026). Counter-terrorism: first Joint Working Group signed 2001; joint exercises include Shakti (Army), Varuna (Navy), Garuda (Air Force).
The Horizon 2047 Roadmap (signed 2023) guides the next 25 years. Exam tip: France is a “resident Indo-Pacific power” (Reunion, Mayotte, New Caledonia, French Polynesia — 1.6 million citizens in the region).
This makes the India-France maritime partnership distinct from the India-US or India-UK ones.
Question 14 of 30
The Shaurya Squadrons, dedicated drone sub-units embedded within armoured regiments, were validated during which exercise?
It was reviewed by Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth, GOC-in-C Southern Command, Pune. The exercise validated real-time drone-tank coordination in offensive and defensive armoured operations for the first time.
🎯 Concept Kit
Each squadron operates three drone types: surveillance quadcopters, attack drones, and loitering munitions (including Nagastra-1). The Ladakh standoff (2020-ongoing) and Pakistan desert border also drove urgency for ISR drone capability.
Exam tip: connects to GS3 (Security and internal security) — UPSC may pair this with Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs) and the Shekatkar Committee (2016) recommendations on defence modernization. The concept of “attritional warfare” using cheap drones against expensive platforms is a potential Mains essay theme.
Question 15 of 30
The Nagastra-1, India indigenous loitering munition, was developed by Economic Explosives Limited (a subsidiary of Solar Industries) in collaboration with which startup?
Specifications: 8-9 kg total UAV weight, 15 km range in man-in-loop mode and 30-40 km in autonomous GPS/NavIC-guided mode, 1-1.5 kg HE fragmentation warhead, and 2-metre CEP (Circular Error Probable) accuracy for precision strikes.
🎯 Concept Kit
Nagastra-1 uses India indigenous NavIC navigation system (7-satellite constellation: 3 GEO + 4 GSO, operational since 2018) instead of GPS alone, ensuring sovereign navigation. The iDEX programme (launched April 2018 under Defence Innovation Organisation, MoD) has catalysed India defence startup ecosystem with 676+ onboarded startups.
Exam tip: UPSC tests indigenous defence programmes under Aatmanirbhar Bharat — India targets 75% domestic defence procurement by 2029. Know the difference between loitering munitions (expendable, one-use) and armed UAVs (reusable platforms like Heron TP or Predator).
Previous year questions have tested iDEX and defence innovation frameworks.
Question 16 of 30
How many armoured regiments does the Indian Army maintain, all of which are targeted to eventually receive Shaurya drone sub-units?
India operational tank fleet consists of approximately 5,000 vehicles: T-90S Bhishma (~2,078 in service), T-72 Ajeya (~1,900), and Arjun Mk1A (124 delivered, 118 more on order from HVF Avadi, Chennai). India is the world fourth-largest tank operator.
🎯 Concept Kit
Three strategic drivers accelerated this reform: Ukraine conflict lessons (cheap FPV drones destroying expensive armour), the China standoff in Eastern Ladakh (high-altitude ISR requirements at 14,000+ feet), and Pakistan border surveillance in the Rajasthan desert sector. The Future Ready Combat Vehicle (FRCV) project to replace T-72s will integrate drone-tank teaming from inception.
Exam tip: UPSC may test India combined-arms reforms alongside Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs), Theatre Commands (CDS-led reform), and the Shekatkar Committee recommendations. GS3 (Security) frequently features defence modernization questions — know specific procurement numbers and indigenous content percentages.
Question 17 of 30
Under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, who has the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill?
Under Article 109, a Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha gets a maximum of 14 days to return it with recommendations, which Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
🎯 Concept Kit
Article 110 is inspired by the British Parliament Act 1911, which curtailed the House of Lords veto over finance bills. The Rajya Sabha has repeatedly protested the misuse of the Money Bill route to bypass its scrutiny.
Exam tip: UPSC frequently tests Money Bill vs Finance Bill (Part A: tax proposals, Part B: expenditure) vs Appropriation Bill (Article 114). Also know the distinction between Consolidated Fund (Article 266(1)), Contingency Fund (Article 267), and Public Account — all appear in Article 110(1) definitions.
Question 18 of 30
The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB), which reviewed the RBI Payments Vision 2028, was established under which legislation?
The PRB is chaired by the RBI Governor (ex-officio); current chair is Sanjay Malhotra, who assumed office on 11 December 2024, succeeding Shaktikanta Das. The PRB regulates and supervises all payment systems in India, including UPI, IMPS, NEFT, RTGS, and card networks.
🎯 Concept Kit
The Payments Vision 2028 focuses on offline UPI (for rural areas with poor connectivity), cross-border interoperability (UPI-PayNow linkage with Singapore launched February 2023, UPI-DuitNow with Malaysia), and the Digital Rupee (e-Rupee/CBDC, piloted from December 2022). Exam tip: PRB (regulator) is distinct from NPCI (operator of retail payment systems) — UPSC tests this distinction.
Also know the Watal Committee (2016) recommended creating PRB as an independent statutory body, though currently it remains within RBI. The PSS Act 2007 is the parent legislation for India entire payments regulation architecture.
Question 19 of 30
The PRISM-SG portal, jointly launched by Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Ashwini Vaishnaw, reduces the approval timeline for Road Over Bridges (ROBs) from approximately 12 months to what duration?
The portal replaces a paper-based process involving multiple rounds of correspondence between MoRTH and the Ministry of Railways.
🎯 Concept Kit
The portal brings MoRTH and Railways onto a single digital platform for the first time, reducing inter-ministerial coordination delays. Exam tip: this connects to GS2 (e-governance and institutional reform) and GS3 (Infrastructure development).
UPSC tests the PM GatiShakti framework frequently — it integrates 16 ministries on a unified logistics master plan. The National Logistics Policy 2022 (target: reduce logistics cost from 14% to 8% of GDP) provides the overarching policy context.
Question 20 of 30
The Television Rating Policy 2026, notified by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, mandates what minimum percentage of independent directors on TV rating agency boards?
🎯 Concept Kit
The 2026 policy introduces technology-neutral measurement covering cable, DTH, OTT, and connected TV viewership. Annual establishment surveys will cover 10x the metered sample for calibration.
Exam tip: this connects to GS2 (Media regulation, freedom of press) and GS4 (Ethics in media and advertising). UPSC may test TRAI vs I&B Ministry jurisdiction — TRAI recommends, the Ministry notifies policy.
Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act 1995 and IT Act 2000 are the parent legislative frameworks.
Question 21 of 30
Japan first Shinkansen bullet train line, the Tokaido Shinkansen connecting Tokyo and Osaka, was inaugurated in which year?
Initial speed was 210 km/h using the iconic 0 Series trainsets, designed by Hideo Shima. The project was championed by Japanese National Railways (JNR) president Shinji Sogo against considerable political opposition.
Current Nozomi services cover the route in 2 hours 21 minutes at 285 km/h.
🎯 Concept Kit
Target commercial operations: 2028-2030. Exam tip: UPSC tests India-Japan infrastructure cooperation under GS2 (bilateral relations) — also know DMIC (Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor), Western DFC (Japanese-funded), and the Act East Policy framework.
The India-Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership (upgraded 2014) is the context for these mega-projects.
Question 22 of 30
The J-6W drone fleet deployed by China near the Taiwan Strait is a modified version of which Cold War-era fighter jet?
The J-6W is a drone conversion with automatic flight control systems, terrain-matching navigation, and pre-programmed mission profiles. According to a March 2026 Mitchell Institute for Aerospace Studies report, approximately 200+ J-6W drones are deployed at six air bases near the Taiwan Strait — five in Fujian Province and one in Guangdong Province.
🎯 Concept Kit
The Taiwan Strait is approximately 180 km wide at its narrowest point. For India, China drone capabilities validate the indigenous loitering munition programme (Nagastra-1) and the Shaurya Squadrons concept.
Exam tip: this connects to GS2 (China-Taiwan relations, One China Policy — India position since 2003) and GS3 (emerging security technologies, asymmetric warfare). UPSC may test China grey-zone tactics in the South China Sea and Taiwan Strait alongside India LAC concerns.
The concept of converting retired aircraft into drones is relevant to India own fleet of retiring MiG-21s and Jaguar aircraft.
Question 23 of 30
The new cockroach species Neoloboptera peninsularis, discovered in Pune, was identified by researchers from which institution?
This was the first use of DNA barcoding techniques for cockroach identification in India, raising the country total of documented cockroach species to 190. The species was described in the journal ZooKeys.
🎯 Concept Kit
DNA barcoding uses the mitochondrial Cytochrome C Oxidase subunit I (COI) gene for rapid molecular species identification — pioneered by Paul Hebert (University of Guelph, 2003). ZSI (zoology) and BSI (Botanical Survey of India, est. 1890, Kolkata) form India core taxonomic research infrastructure.
Exam tip: the Biological Diversity Act 2002 and National Biodiversity Authority (NBA, Chennai) govern genetic resource access and benefit-sharing under the Nagoya Protocol (2010, in force 2014). UPSC Prelims 2022 tested megadiverse country criteria and India hotspot locations.
Know the difference between ZSI, BSI, WII (Dehradun), and BNHS (Mumbai) — all serve distinct conservation mandates.
Question 24 of 30
Sushila Karki, who stepped down in March 2026 as Nepal interim PM, holds what historic distinction?
She oversaw parliamentary elections held on 5 March 2026 and stepped down on 27 March 2026 when Balen Shah of the Rastriya Swatantra Party (RSP) was sworn in as Nepal new PM with the first single-party majority since 1999.
🎯 Concept Kit
India-Nepal relations: 1,770 km open border, Treaty of Peace and Friendship 1950 (governs trade, transit, and residency rights), Mahakali Treaty 1996 (water sharing), and growing Chinese Belt and Road Initiative influence as a strategic concern. Balen Shah (an engineer and rapper) represents a generational political shift in Nepal.
Exam tip: Nepal political transitions are frequently tested under GS2 (India and its neighbourhood). Know the key constitutional provisions — Article 76 (PM appointment), Article 274 (provincial governance) — and India border disputes with Nepal (Kalapani-Lipulekh-Limpiyadhura, reflected in Nepal revised map of June 2020).
Question 25 of 30
Operation Searchlight, the military crackdown by Pakistan in East Pakistan that triggered the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War, was launched on which date?
Bangladesh marks 25 March as Genocide Day (officially declared in 2017). Mujib declared independence on 26 March 1971 via radio (Bangladesh Independence Day).
The war ended on 16 December 1971 with Pakistan formal surrender in Dhaka.
🎯 Concept Kit
The refugee crisis saw approximately 10 million East Pakistani refugees flood into India (primarily West Bengal, Tripura, Assam), which was a direct trigger for India military intervention. Exam tip: UPSC tests the Simla Agreement provisions, the refugee crisis as casus belli, and the role of the Mukti Bahini.
Previous year questions have appeared on the 1971 war in both Prelims and Mains (GS1). The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation (August 1971) provided strategic cover for India intervention.
Question 26 of 30
Consider the following statements about India NDC 3.0 (March 2026):
1. India has committed to achieving 60% non-fossil fuel installed power capacity by
2035. 2. India net-zero target year has been advanced from 2070 to 2060 under NDC 3.0.
3. India achieved over 52% non-fossil fuel installed capacity by February 2026, surpassing its NDC 2.0 target ahead of schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect — India net-zero target remains firmly at 2070, unchanged since PM Modi announced it at COP26 Glasgow on 1 November 2021. India consistently cites its development needs, low per-capita emissions (~2.4 tonnes vs global average ~6.3 tonnes), and the CBDR-RC principle to justify the 2070 timeline.
🎯 Concept Kit
NDC 3.0 also introduces a new forest sink target of 3.5-4 billion tonnes CO2-equivalent additional carbon sink through enhanced forest and tree cover by 2035. Key policy instruments: Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (June 2023, under Energy Conservation Act 2001 as amended 2022), National Action Plan on Climate Change with 8 missions (2008), and the proposed Carbon Border Adjustment response mechanism.
Exam tip: UPSC statement-based questions on climate targets test exact numbers and timelines — memorize the NDC 1.0/2.0/3.0 targets as a progression table. Also know the Article 6 carbon market mechanisms under the Paris Agreement.
Question 27 of 30
Consider the following statements about the Modified UDAN scheme:
1. The total outlay for Modified UDAN is Rs 28,840 crore over a 10-year period from FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36.
2. Under the original UDAN scheme, over 90% of routes remained viable after VGF subsidy withdrawal.
3. The Modified UDAN includes procurement of indigenous HAL aircraft and helicopters worth Rs 400 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect — only 7-10% of routes were viable after VGF withdrawal; over 90% failed, and 327 of 663 operationalised routes were discontinued entirely.
🎯 Concept Kit
India had approximately 150 operational airports in 2025 versus the NABH Nirman target of 220 airports. The original UDAN was part of PM Modi vision of “Hawa-i Chappal to Hawai Jahaz” (from slippers to airplanes).
Exam tip: UDAN connects to GS3 (Infrastructure, inclusive growth) and GS2 (Centre-State cooperation, as states provide 20% VGF share and subsidies). UPSC may test the specific VGF mechanism — the Regional Connectivity Fund sourced from the Rs 5,000 levy on departing domestic flights.
Question 28 of 30
Consider the following statements about the G7:
1. The G7 was originally founded as the G6 in 1975, with Canada joining in 1976 to form the G7.
2. Russia was suspended from the G8 in 2014 following its annexation of Crimea.
3. The European Union is a full voting member of the G7 with the same status as other member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Russia joined in 1998 to form the G8 but was suspended indefinitely in March 2014 following Crimea annexation — the scheduled 2014 Sochi G8 summit was replaced by a Brussels G7 meeting. Statement 3 is incorrect — the EU is a “non-enumerated member” or permanent invitee (since the 1981 Ottawa Summit) and does not have full voting status equal to the seven member states.
🎯 Concept Kit
The G7 vs BRICS narrative is a key geopolitical framework: G7 represents the Western-led rules-based order while expanded BRICS (11 members since 2025) represents a Global South alternative. India EAM Jaishankar attended the March 2026 G7 Foreign Ministers meeting in France, showcasing India multi-alignment strategy.
Exam tip: UPSC tests G7/G20/BRICS membership distinctions and India engagement with each forum. Note that the EU presence in the G7 without voting rights parallels the EU observer status in other forums — a potential comparison question.
Previous year questions have tested the year of G7/G8 formation and Russia suspension.
Question 29 of 30
Consider the following statements about the Kavach train protection system:
1. Kavach uses Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radio for communication between trains and stations.
2. Kavach costs approximately Rs 2 crore per route-km, similar to the European ETCS system.
3. RailTel Corporation, which operates over 61,000 route-km of optical fibre on Railway right-of-way, received Navratna PSU status in August
2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
RailTel Corporation (founded 26 September 2000) received Navratna PSU status on 30 August 2024, becoming the 22nd Navratna enterprise, and operates approximately 62,000 route-km of optical fibre along Railway right-of-way. Statement 2 is incorrect — Kavach costs roughly Rs 50 lakh per route-km, which is four to five times CHEAPER than ETCS at approximately Rs 2 crore per km.
The question reverses the cost advantage.
🎯 Concept Kit
Navratna status grants enhanced financial autonomy: investment decisions up to Rs 1,000 crore without government approval (vs Miniratna limit of Rs 500 crore). ETCS has three operational levels: Level 1 (trackside balises, intermittent supervision), Level 2 (continuous radio via GSM-R, cab signalling), Level 3 (moving block, no fixed signals).
Kavach integrates features from both Level 2 and Level 3. Exam tip: the Kavach cost advantage (indigenous UHF vs imported GSM-R infrastructure) is a classic UPSC Prelims distractor — questions are designed to make candidates confuse which system is cheaper.
Know also that Kavach is SIL-4 certified, matching ETCS safety standards despite the lower cost.
Question 30 of 30
Consider the following statements about India drone ecosystem:
1. The iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) programme was launched in 2018 and has onboarded over 676 startups and MSMEs.
2. The Liberalised Drone Rules of 2021 introduced mandatory security clearance for all drone operations in India.
3. The Drone Shakti scheme announced in Budget 2026 has an estimated outlay of Rs 10,000 crore over five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect — the Liberalised Drone Rules 2021 (notified 25 August 2021) ABOLISHED the mandatory security clearance requirement, dramatically simplified compliance by reducing forms from 25 to 5, fee types from 72 to 4, and eliminated the need for certificate of conformance and pilot licence for nano drones.
🎯 Concept Kit
The Indian Army plans procurement of approximately 30,000 loitering munitions across all commands. Exam tip: the Liberalised Drone Rules 2021 ABOLISHED (not introduced) security clearance — this reversal is a common UPSC trap designed to test whether candidates actually know the policy direction.
Also know the drone classification by weight: Nano (<250g), Micro (250g-2kg), Small (2-25kg), Medium (25-150kg), Large (>150kg). iDEX operates through DISC challenges and has a dedicated fund (Defence Innovation Fund) of Rs 500 crore managed by a Fund of Funds structure.
Performance
Question-wise Result