Daily Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz — March 26, 2026
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30 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
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Question 1 of 30
Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code, is found under which Part?
Article 44 falls under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36-51). It states: “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.” DPSPs are non-justiciable — they cannot be enforced by courts (Article 37) but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
The Supreme Court in Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985) and Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) urged the government to implement a UCC.
The Supreme Court in Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985) and Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) urged the government to implement a UCC.
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DPSPs (Articles 36-51) are inspired by the Irish Constitution. Part III (Fundamental Rights, Articles 12-35) are justiciable and enforceable by courts under Articles 32 and 226. Part IVA (Article 51A) lists 11 Fundamental Duties added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. The Minerva Mills case (1980) established that Parts III and IV are complementary — neither is superior. For UPSC Prelims, remember: Articles 36-51 = DPSPs, Articles 12-35 = Fundamental Rights, Article 51A = Fundamental Duties.
Question 2 of 30
Which state already has a functioning uniform civil code inherited from Portuguese colonial rule?
Goa has operated under a common family law since its liberation in 1961, inherited from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867. Key features include: mandatory civil registration of all marriages irrespective of religion, equal inheritance rights for sons and daughters, compulsory community of assets between spouses (comunhao dos bens), and all divorces must go through court proceedings.
The Supreme Court in Jose Paulo Coutinho v. Maria Luiza Valentina Pereira (2019) specifically praised Goa as a “shining example” of a common civil code.
The Supreme Court in Jose Paulo Coutinho v. Maria Luiza Valentina Pereira (2019) specifically praised Goa as a “shining example” of a common civil code.
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Timeline of UCC developments in India — Goa: Common code since 1961 (Portuguese origin). Uttarakhand: First state to legislatively enact a UCC post-independence (February 2024, effective January 2025). Gujarat: UCC Bill passed March 2026 (second state after Uttarakhand). The 21st Law Commission (2018) concluded that a UCC is “neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.” Article 25 (Freedom of religion) and Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs) are often cited as constitutional tensions with UCC. Daman and Diu, though also formerly Portuguese territory, were merged into the UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in 2020 — their civil code application varies.
Question 3 of 30
The NALSA v. Union of India (2014) judgment is a landmark ruling related to the rights of which group?
In NALSA v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court bench of Justice K.S. Radhakrishnan and Justice A.K. Sikri recognised transgender persons as the “third gender” and upheld their fundamental right to self-identification of gender under Articles 14 (Equality), 15 (Non-discrimination), 19(1)(a) (Freedom of expression), and 21 (Right to life and personal liberty). The Court also directed that sex reassignment surgery cannot be mandated as a precondition for legal gender recognition, and that transgender persons are entitled to reservation under OBC category.
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Key legislation and judicial history — Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019: Enacted post-NALSA; criticised for requiring a District Magistrate certificate and diluting self-identification. Section 377 IPC: Decriminalised by Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) — note this is separate from NALSA. Yogyakarta Principles (2006): International principles on sexual orientation and gender identity that NALSA extensively referenced. For Prelims, remember: NALSA = transgender rights + third gender recognition; Navtej Johar = Section 377 decriminalisation; Puttaswamy = Right to Privacy. These three together form the modern constitutional framework for gender and sexuality rights.
Question 4 of 30
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was initially established as a non-statutory body in which year?
SEBI was initially established on April 12, 1988 as a non-statutory executive body through an administrative resolution of the Government of India. It was given statutory powers when the SEBI Act, 1992 came into force on January 30, 1992, following the Harshad Mehta securities scam which exposed regulatory gaps.
SEBI is headquartered at Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai, and its current Chairperson (as of 2026) oversees a nine-member board including representatives from the Finance Ministry, RBI, and the Law Ministry.
SEBI is headquartered at Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai, and its current Chairperson (as of 2026) oversees a nine-member board including representatives from the Finance Ministry, RBI, and the Law Ministry.
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SEBI operates as a quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, and quasi-executive body. Key functions: (1) Protective — prevents insider trading, ensures fair practices; (2) Regulatory — regulates stock exchanges, brokers, merchant bankers; (3) Developmental — promotes investor education, allows internet trading. Appeals against SEBI orders go to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), and from SAT to the Supreme Court. Related regulators: RBI (banking, 1935), IRDAI (insurance, 1999), PFRDA (pensions, 2003/2013), IBBI (insolvency, 2016). For Prelims, the establishment years matter: RBI (1935), SEBI (1988/1992), IRDAI (1999), PFRDA (2003/2013), IBBI (2016).
Question 5 of 30
The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to which body of water?
The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which then opens into the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean. It is the most critical oil chokepoint globally — approximately 20-21 million barrels of oil per day (about 20% of globally traded oil) transit through this strait.
At its narrowest, Hormuz is about 21 nautical miles (~39 km) wide, with two 2-mile shipping lanes separated by a 2-mile buffer zone. Iran controls the northern shore while Oman (Musandam Peninsula, an exclave) controls the southern shore.
At its narrowest, Hormuz is about 21 nautical miles (~39 km) wide, with two 2-mile shipping lanes separated by a 2-mile buffer zone. Iran controls the northern shore while Oman (Musandam Peninsula, an exclave) controls the southern shore.
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Critical global chokepoints for UPSC Geography — Strait of Hormuz: Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman (oil); Strait of Malacca: Indian Ocean to Pacific (busiest shipping lane, ~25% of global trade); Bab el-Mandeb: Red Sea to Gulf of Aden (connects Suez route); Suez Canal: Mediterranean to Red Sea (Egypt, ~12% of global trade); Panama Canal: Atlantic to Pacific; Turkish Straits (Bosphorus + Dardanelles): Black Sea to Mediterranean. India maintains ~88% crude oil import dependence. Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) covers ~9.5 days of consumption (5.33 MMT across Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, Padur). India is also developing the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, announced at G20 New Delhi 2023) as an alternative trade route.
Question 6 of 30
India stores its Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) in underground rock caverns at three locations. Which of the following is NOT an SPR location?
India has three operational SPR facilities: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh (1.33 MMT); Mangaluru, Karnataka (1.5 MMT); and Padur, Karnataka (2.5 MMT) — total capacity of 5.33 million metric tonnes, equivalent to approximately 9.5 days of national crude oil consumption. Jamnagar (Gujarat) hosts Reliance Industries’ refinery complex — the world’s largest single-location refinery (1.4 million bpd capacity) — but is NOT an SPR facility. The SPR facilities are managed by the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), a wholly-owned subsidiary of ONGC.
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SPR Phase II expansion (6.5 MMT additional) is proposed at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Padur expansion (Karnataka) under the PPP model, with commercial storage operated by companies like ADNOC (Abu Dhabi). Internationally, the US has the world’s largest SPR (~714 million barrels) stored in salt caverns along the Gulf of Mexico coast. IEA member countries are required to maintain 90 days of net oil import reserves. India, not being an IEA member (but an associate), has set a target of building reserves sufficient for at least 22 days. For UPSC, also note: India is the 3rd largest oil consumer and 3rd largest importer globally. Top suppliers: Iraq (~23%), Saudi Arabia (~16%), Russia (~15%), UAE, and Kuwait.
Question 7 of 30
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) of India is established under which legislation?
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. It is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
The NBA operates a three-tier structure: NBA at the national level, State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level, and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local body level (panchayat / municipality). The Act regulates access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use.
The NBA operates a three-tier structure: NBA at the national level, State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level, and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local body level (panchayat / municipality). The Act regulates access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use.
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The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 implements India’s obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), signed at the Rio Earth Summit, 1992; India ratified in 1994. Key international protocols under CBD: Cartagena Protocol (2000) — biosafety and GMOs; Nagoya Protocol (2010, effective 2014) — Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) of genetic resources; Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (COP15, 2022) — “30x30 target” (protect 30% of land and sea by 2030). Environmental legislation timeline for Prelims: Wildlife Protection Act (1972), Water Act (1974), Forest Conservation Act (1980), Air Act (1981), Environment Protection Act (1986), umbrella legislation under Article 253, Biological Diversity Act (2002), National Green Tribunal Act (2010), Forest Rights Act (2006).
Question 8 of 30
Helium, which is critical for semiconductor manufacturing and MRI machines, has which atomic number?
Helium (He) has atomic number 2. It is a noble gas (Group 18) with the lowest boiling point of any element (-268.93 degrees C or 4.22 K).
It is non-renewable on Earth — formed through radioactive decay of heavy elements (uranium, thorium) in the Earth’s crust and trapped alongside natural gas deposits. It is extracted as a byproduct of natural gas processing.
Unlike other gases, helium escapes Earth’s gravity once released into the atmosphere, making it a depleting resource.
It is non-renewable on Earth — formed through radioactive decay of heavy elements (uranium, thorium) in the Earth’s crust and trapped alongside natural gas deposits. It is extracted as a byproduct of natural gas processing.
Unlike other gases, helium escapes Earth’s gravity once released into the atmosphere, making it a depleting resource.
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Global helium supply: Qatar (Ras Laffan LNG hub, ~33%), US (~40%, from Federal Helium Reserve in Amarillo, Texas), Algeria (~10%), Russia, and Australia. India has no significant domestic helium production and imports nearly 100%. Applications: MRI scanners (cryogenic cooling of superconducting magnets), semiconductor fabrication (cooling, carrier gas in Chemical Vapor Deposition, leak detection, EUV lithography), space launch (pressurising fuel tanks), deep-sea diving (heliox breathing mix), and scientific research (particle accelerators like CERN). Noble gases for Prelims (Group 18): He (2), Ne (10), Ar (18), Kr (36), Xe (54), Rn (86), Og (118).
Question 9 of 30
The BrahMos supersonic cruise missile is a joint venture between India and which country?
BrahMos is a joint venture between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM). BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited was established in 1998. The missile is named after the Brahmaputra river (India) and the Moskva river (Russia).
BrahMos travels at Mach 2.8-3.0 (supersonic) with an extended range of 450+ km (range cap of 290 km was lifted after India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) in June 2016). It has ship-launched, submarine-launched, air-launched (from Su-30MKI), and land-based variants.
BrahMos travels at Mach 2.8-3.0 (supersonic) with an extended range of 450+ km (range cap of 290 km was lifted after India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) in June 2016). It has ship-launched, submarine-launched, air-launched (from Su-30MKI), and land-based variants.
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India’s missile programme for UPSC — BrahMos: Supersonic cruise missile (Mach 2.8-3.0, Indo-Russian JV). BrahMos-II (under development): Hypersonic, Mach 7+. Agni series: Ballistic missiles (Agni-V: 5000+ km ICBM range, Agni-P: canisterised, MIRV capable). Prithvi: Short-range ballistic. K-series (K-4, K-5): Submarine-launched ballistic missiles for INS Arihant class. Nirbhay: Subsonic cruise missile (1000+ km range). Pralay: Quasi-ballistic (150-500 km). MTCR membership (2016) removed the 300 km range cap under the original regime. India also joined the Wassenaar Arrangement (2017) and Australia Group (2018) but is NOT a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). First BrahMos export: Philippines ($375 million, 2022).
Question 10 of 30
The World Health Organization (WHO) was founded on April 7, 1948. Which date is celebrated annually as World Health Day?
April 7 is celebrated as World Health Day, marking the date the WHO Constitution came into force in 1948. The WHO is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and currently has 194 member states.
It is a specialised agency of the United Nations. The current Director-General is Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (elected 2017, re-elected 2022).
The World Health Assembly (WHA), held annually in Geneva, is the supreme decision-making body of WHO, attended by delegates from all member states.
It is a specialised agency of the United Nations. The current Director-General is Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (elected 2017, re-elected 2022).
The World Health Assembly (WHA), held annually in Geneva, is the supreme decision-making body of WHO, attended by delegates from all member states.
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Important UN days for Prelims — March 22: World Water Day; April 7: World Health Day; April 22: Earth Day; May 8: World Red Cross Day; May 22: International Biodiversity Day; June 5: World Environment Day; June 21: International Yoga Day (UNGA resolution 69/131, 2014, proposed by India); September 21: International Day of Peace; October 16: World Food Day. Key WHO initiatives: International Health Regulations (IHR, 2005); Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC); Global Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance. Argentina became the second country (after the US) to withdraw from WHO in March 2026. WHO membership withdrawal requires a one-year notice period under its Constitution. India is a founding member of WHO (1948) and hosts the WHO South-East Asia Regional Office (SEARO) in New Delhi.
Question 11 of 30
The G7 (Group of Seven) was originally founded in 1975 as the G6. Which country joined in 1976 to make it G7?
Canada joined the group in 1976, converting the G6 into the G7. The original G6 members (1975) were the US, UK, France, Germany, Italy, and Japan.
Russia joined in 1997 making it the G8, but was suspended in 2014 following the annexation of Crimea. The European Union participates as a non-enumerated member.
France holds the G7 presidency for 2026, with the summit scheduled at Evian, June 15-17.
Russia joined in 1997 making it the G8, but was suspended in 2014 following the annexation of Crimea. The European Union participates as a non-enumerated member.
France holds the G7 presidency for 2026, with the summit scheduled at Evian, June 15-17.
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Key multilateral groupings for Prelims — G7: US, UK, France, Germany, Italy, Canada, Japan (economic forum, ~30% of global GDP). G20: G7 + Argentina, Australia, Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, EU, AU. BRICS: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa + Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, UAE (expanded 2024). Quad: US, India, Australia, Japan (strategic, Indo- Pacific focused). SCO: China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Iran, Belarus.
Question 12 of 30
The GARBH-INi initiative, South Asia’s largest pregnancy cohort study, is led by which institution?
GARBH-INi (Group for Advanced Research on Birth outcomes — an interdisciplinary INitiative) is led by the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), located in the NCR Biotech Science Cluster, Faridabad. THSTI operates under the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology. The initiative has enrolled approximately 12,000 women, built a biorepository of 1.6 million biospecimens and 1 million ultrasound images, and uses AI-driven diagnostics to predict and prevent preterm births.
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India ranks 1st globally in absolute preterm births — 3.6 million out of 27 million annual births (13.3%). Globally, ~15 million preterm births occur each year, and preterm birth is the leading cause of under-5 mortality worldwide. WHO defines preterm birth as delivery before 37 completed weeks of gestation. Key AI applications in GARBH-INi: pregnancy dating models (replacing inaccurate LMP method), microbiome- based predictors for preterm risk, and rapid point-of-care diagnostics designed for ASHAs and ANMs at Primary Health Centres. DBT also oversees other major biotech programmes: BIRAC (Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council) and the National Biopharma Mission.
Question 13 of 30
The ADC-150 air-droppable container, recently tested by DRDO, was developed by which DRDO laboratory?
The ADC-150 was developed by the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL), Visakhapatnam — a DRDO lab specialising in naval weapons and systems. The parachute delivery system was designed by the Aerial Delivery Research and Development Establishment (ADRDE), Agra.
Airworthiness certification was provided by CEMILAC (Centre for Military Airworthiness and Certification), Bengaluru. The container can deliver up to 150 kg payload from a P-8I aircraft to ships at sea via parachute.
Airworthiness certification was provided by CEMILAC (Centre for Military Airworthiness and Certification), Bengaluru. The container can deliver up to 150 kg payload from a P-8I aircraft to ships at sea via parachute.
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Key DRDO laboratories for Prelims — NSTL (Visakhapatnam): Naval weapons, torpedoes. DRDL (Hyderabad): Missile systems (Agni, Prithvi). ADE (Bengaluru): UAVs, Rustom, Tapas. DLRL (Hyderabad): Electronic warfare. ADRDE (Agra): Parachutes, aerial delivery. CEMILAC (Bengaluru): Military airworthiness certification. DRDO was established in 1958 with its headquarters in New Delhi. Current Chairman: Dr. Samir V. Kamat. DRDO has 52 laboratories across India. The P-8I Neptune is based on the Boeing 737-800 airframe; India has 12 P-8I aircraft in service with the Indian Navy for maritime patrol, anti-submarine warfare, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) missions.
Question 14 of 30
INS Taragiri, set to be commissioned in April 2026, belongs to which class of frigates?
INS Taragiri (F41) is the fourth ship of the Nilgiri-class stealth frigates built under Project 17A. It was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, and will be commissioned on April 3, 2026.
The Nilgiri-class has a displacement of 6,670 tonnes, exceeds 75% indigenous content, and is armed with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. A total of 7 ships are planned — 4 at MDL Mumbai and 3 at GRSE Kolkata.
The Nilgiri-class has a displacement of 6,670 tonnes, exceeds 75% indigenous content, and is armed with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. A total of 7 ships are planned — 4 at MDL Mumbai and 3 at GRSE Kolkata.
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Indian Navy frigate classes — Nilgiri-class (Project 17A): 7 stealth frigates, most advanced indigenous design. Shivalik-class (Project 17): 3 ships, predecessor to 17A. Talwar-class (Project 11356): 6 ships, built in Russia (Yantar Shipyard). Kamorta-class (Project 28): 4 anti- submarine corvettes (not frigates). Indian Navy shipbuilding yards: MDL Mumbai (submarines + frigates), GRSE Kolkata (frigates + corvettes), GSL Goa (patrol vessels), CSL Kochi (aircraft carrier INS Vikrant). Indian Navy target fleet strength: 175 warships by 2035 (current: ~130).
Question 15 of 30
The JCPOA (Iran Nuclear Deal), from which the US withdrew in 2018, was originally signed in which year?
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) was signed on July 14, 2015 in Vienna, Austria between Iran and the P5+1 group (US, UK, France, Russia, China + Germany), with the EU serving as coordinator. Under the deal, Iran agreed to limit uranium enrichment to 3.67% and reduce its centrifuge count in exchange for sanctions relief.
The US under President Trump unilaterally withdrew from the JCPOA in May 2018, reimposing sanctions on Iran.
The US under President Trump unilaterally withdrew from the JCPOA in May 2018, reimposing sanctions on Iran.
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Nuclear agreements for UPSC — NPT (Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, 1968): India is NOT a signatory; recognises only 5 nuclear weapon states (P5). CTBT (Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty, 1996): India has NOT signed. Indo-US Nuclear Deal (123 Agreement, 2008): Gave India access to civilian nuclear technology despite being a non-NPT state. NSG waiver (2008): Allowed India to engage in nuclear commerce. JCPOA (2015): Iran nuclear deal. Iran’s current enrichment level: Up to 60% purity (weapons- grade is 90%). P5+1 = UN Security Council permanent members + Germany.
Question 16 of 30
How many member states does ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) currently have?
ASEAN currently has 11 member states: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, and Timor-Leste. Timor-Leste (East Timor) became the 11th member on October 26, 2025 at the 47th ASEAN Summit — the first expansion since Cambodia joined in 1999. ASEAN was established on August 8, 1967 by the Bangkok Declaration, with 5 founding members (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand).
Its secretariat is in Jakarta, Indonesia.
Its secretariat is in Jakarta, Indonesia.
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ASEAN for UPSC — Founded: August 8, 1967 (Bangkok Declaration). Original 5 members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand. Expansion: Brunei (1984), Vietnam (1995), Laos and Myanmar (1997), Cambodia (1999), Timor-Leste (2025). Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia. India-ASEAN relations: India became a Sectoral Dialogue Partner (1992), Full Dialogue Partner (1996), Summit-level Partner (2002). Act East Policy (upgraded from Look East Policy in 2014) prioritises ASEAN engagement. Key India-ASEAN platforms: East Asia Summit (EAS), ADMM-Plus, ARF (ASEAN Regional Forum). India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway and Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connect Northeast India to ASEAN.
Question 17 of 30
India’s Semiconductor Mission, launched to build a domestic chip ecosystem, operates under which ministry?
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was launched in 2021 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) with an outlay of Rs 76,000 crore (~$10 billion) to develop a comprehensive semiconductor and display fabrication ecosystem in India. Key projects include: Tata Electronics fab at Dholera, Gujarat (in partnership with PSMC, Taiwan); Micron Technology ATMP (Assembly, Testing, Marking, Packaging) facility at Sanand, Gujarat; and CG Power semiconductor facility (with Renesas, Japan).
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Semiconductor supply chain for UPSC — Design: Qualcomm, Apple, AMD (fabless). Fabrication: TSMC (Taiwan), Samsung (South Korea), Intel (US). ATMP: Assembly and packaging (labour-intensive, India’s entry point). Equipment: ASML (Netherlands, sole EUV lithography maker). Raw materials: Silicon wafers, rare earth elements, helium (cooling + process gas). Key chokepoints: Taiwan produces ~90% of advanced chips (below 7nm). CHIPS Act (US, 2022): $52 billion for domestic semiconductor manufacturing. EU Chips Act (2023): EUR 43 billion. India’s approach: Attract fabs with 50% fiscal support under ISM + state incentives.
Question 18 of 30
The Kalinga Stadium Complex, which will host the 2028 World Indoor Athletics Championships, is located in which city?
The Kalinga Stadium Complex is located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. India will host the 22nd World Indoor Athletics Championships on March 3-5, 2028 — the first time India hosts this event.
The bid was placed by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI). The event was confirmed by the World Athletics Council at its meeting in Torun, Poland on March 19, 2026.
The championship will feature 26 events (13 men’s + 13 women’s).
The bid was placed by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI). The event was confirmed by the World Athletics Council at its meeting in Torun, Poland on March 19, 2026.
The championship will feature 26 events (13 men’s + 13 women’s).
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Bhubaneswar’s sports credentials — hosted the 2018 FIH Hockey World Cup, multiple FIH Pro League events, and Asian Athletics Championships. Rourkela (also in Odisha) has the Birsa Munda Hockey Stadium (largest hockey stadium in India, 20,000 capacity, built for 2023 Hockey World Cup). World Athletics is the international governing body for track and field; President: Sebastian Coe (UK). AFI President: Adille Sumariwalla. India’s recent athletics achievements: Neeraj Chopra (Olympic gold, javelin, Tokyo 2021; World Championship gold, Budapest 2023).
Question 19 of 30
Exercise Sea Dragon, in which India participates with P-8I aircraft, is primarily focused on which type of warfare?
Exercise Sea Dragon is a US-led multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise conducted near Guam in the Western Pacific. The 2026 edition commenced on March 16 with participants from the US, India, Australia, Japan, and New Zealand.
India deployed its P-8I Neptune maritime patrol aircraft, which is specifically designed for detecting and tracking hostile submarines. The exercise accumulated over 200 cumulative flight hours across all participating nations.
India deployed its P-8I Neptune maritime patrol aircraft, which is specifically designed for detecting and tracking hostile submarines. The exercise accumulated over 200 cumulative flight hours across all participating nations.
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Major India naval exercises for UPSC — Malabar: India-US-Japan-Australia (annual, Quad nations). RIMPAC: World’s largest multinational naval exercise (biennial, Hawaii; India participated since 2014). Tasman Saber: India-Australia bilateral. JIMEX: India-Japan bilateral. Sea Dragon: US-led ASW exercise (Guam). Varuna: India-France bilateral. SIMBEX: India-Singapore bilateral. Key terms: ASW = Anti-Submarine Warfare; ISR = Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance; MDA = Maritime Domain Awareness. India’s submarine fleet includes Scorpene-class (Kalvari- class, 6 boats) and INS Arihant-class SSBNs (nuclear ballistic missile submarines).
Question 20 of 30
India has how many biodiversity hotspots recognised globally?
India has 4 globally recognised biodiversity hotspots: (1) Western Ghats, (2) Eastern Himalayas, (3) Indo-Burma (covering parts of Northeast India), and (4) Sundaland (covering the Nicobar Islands). A biodiversity hotspot is defined by Conservation International as a region that contains at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and has lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.
There are 36 biodiversity hotspots globally.
There are 36 biodiversity hotspots globally.
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India’s biodiversity profile — India is 1 of 17 megadiverse countries (along with Brazil, Colombia, Indonesia, China, Australia, etc.). India has 4 of the world’s 36 biodiversity hotspots. India hosts ~7-8% of all recorded species globally on just 2.4% of world’s land area. Key protected area categories in India: National Parks (106), Wildlife Sanctuaries (567), Conservation Reserves, Community Reserves. Total protected area coverage: ~5.26% of India’s geographical area. India’s 4 biodiversity hotspots mnemonic: WEIS — Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Sundaland.
Question 21 of 30
Under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, which authority issues the identity certificate for transgender persons?
Under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, the District Magistrate (DM) is the authority responsible for issuing the certificate of identity to transgender persons. The original Act allowed self-declaration-based applications to the DM. The 2026 Amendment has made this process more restrictive by requiring a medical board recommendation before the DM can issue the certificate — a change criticised as violating the NALSA v. Union of India (2014) principle of self-identification.
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Key provisions of the Transgender Persons Act, 2019 — Prohibits discrimination in education, employment, and healthcare. Mandates every establishment to designate a Complaints Officer. Creates the National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) as an advisory body. Section 18: Penalises sexual abuse of transgender persons (6 months to 2 years). Criticism: The Act has been criticised for not providing reservation in education and employment (unlike the NALSA judgment which recommended OBC reservation), and for the DM-based certification process instead of pure self-identification.
Question 22 of 30
The Yanbu terminal, through which Saudi Arabia reroutes oil exports to bypass the Strait of Hormuz, is located on which sea?
The Yanbu terminal is Saudi Aramco’s export hub located on the Red Sea coast of Saudi Arabia. It allows Saudi Arabia to bypass the Strait of Hormuz entirely by pumping crude oil through the East-West Pipeline (Petroline) from the eastern oil fields to Yanbu on the western coast.
During the March 2026 Iran conflict, Saudi Arabia shifted approximately 70% of India’s crude supply through this Red Sea route, avoiding the disrupted Hormuz transit.
During the March 2026 Iran conflict, Saudi Arabia shifted approximately 70% of India’s crude supply through this Red Sea route, avoiding the disrupted Hormuz transit.
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Global oil transit routes for UPSC — Strait of Hormuz: Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman (~20 million bpd, ~20% of global trade). Strait of Malacca: Indian Ocean to South China Sea (~16 million bpd). Suez Canal/SUMED Pipeline: Mediterranean to Red Sea (~9 million bpd). Bab el-Mandeb: Red Sea to Gulf of Aden (~6 million bpd). Danish Straits: North Sea to Baltic Sea. Turkish Straits: Black Sea to Mediterranean. India’s crude import bill in FY25 was approximately $150 billion. India is the world’s 3rd largest oil consumer after the US and China.
Question 23 of 30
India is classified as one of the megadiverse countries. How many megadiverse countries are recognised globally?
There are 17 megadiverse countries recognised globally, a concept identified by Conservation International in 1998. These 17 countries together harbour more than 70% of the world’s biological diversity.
The full list includes: Australia, Brazil, China, Colombia, Democratic Republic of Congo, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mexico, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Philippines, South Africa, United States, and Venezuela.
The full list includes: Australia, Brazil, China, Colombia, Democratic Republic of Congo, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mexico, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Philippines, South Africa, United States, and Venezuela.
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India’s biodiversity statistics — India hosts approximately 7-8% of all recorded species on just 2.4% of the world’s land area. India has over 1,00,000 species of animals, 49,000 species of plants, and is one of the 12 centres of origin of cultivated plants. India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002) established the NBA in Chennai to regulate access to genetic resources and ensure equitable benefit-sharing under the Nagoya Protocol. The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF, 2022) set the “30x30 target” — protect 30% of Earth’s land and ocean by 2030.
Question 24 of 30
The P-8I Neptune maritime patrol aircraft used by the Indian Navy is based on which commercial aircraft platform?
The P-8I Neptune (Indian Navy designation; US Navy variant is P-8A Poseidon) is based on the Boeing 737-800 commercial airframe. India ordered 12 P-8I aircraft in two batches — 8 in 2009 and 4 in 2016 — all of which have been delivered.
The P-8I is capable of anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (ASuW), and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) missions. It carries sonobuoys, torpedoes, Harpoon anti-ship missiles, and depth charges.
The P-8I is capable of anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (ASuW), and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) missions. It carries sonobuoys, torpedoes, Harpoon anti-ship missiles, and depth charges.
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India’s maritime patrol and surveillance assets — P-8I Neptune: Primary long-range maritime patrol aircraft (12 in service). Dornier 228: Medium- range maritime surveillance (HAL-manufactured, used by Navy and Coast Guard). MQ-9B Sea Guardian: High-altitude long-endurance (HALE) armed drone; India signed a deal for 31 MQ-9B drones from General Atomics (2024). DRDO Tapas (Rustom-II): Indigenous MALE UAV under development. Indian Navy’s Maritime Domain Awareness initiative: Information Fusion Centre - Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) in Gurugram monitors shipping movements across the Indian Ocean.
Question 25 of 30
The Nagoya Protocol, which provides the international framework for Access and Benefit Sharing of genetic resources, became effective in which year?
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization was adopted on October 29, 2010 at COP10 of the CBD in Nagoya, Japan. It entered into force on October 12, 2014.
India ratified the Nagoya Protocol in 2012. The Protocol operationalises the third objective of the Convention on Biological Diversity — fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources.
India ratified the Nagoya Protocol in 2012. The Protocol operationalises the third objective of the Convention on Biological Diversity — fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources.
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Key international environmental agreements timeline — CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity): Signed at Rio Earth Summit, 1992. Cartagena Protocol (2000, effective 2003): Biosafety and GMOs. Nagoya Protocol (2010, effective 2014): Access and Benefit Sharing. Kunming-Montreal GBF (COP15, 2022): “30x30 target.” UNFCCC (1992): Climate change framework. Kyoto Protocol (1997, effective 2005): Binding emission targets for developed nations. Paris Agreement (2015, effective 2016): Limit warming to 1.5-2 degrees C; India’s NDC targets: 50% non-fossil electricity capacity by 2030, net-zero by 2070. CITES (1975): Trade in endangered species. Ramsar Convention (1971): Wetlands protection; India has 82 Ramsar sites.
Question 26 of 30
Consider the following statements about the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India:
1 Article 44 of the Constitution, which deals with UCC, is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
2 Goa is the only state in India that has had a common civil code applicable to all citizens irrespective of religion, inherited from Portuguese rule.
3 Uttarakhand became the first state to legislatively enact a UCC after independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Article 44 of the Constitution, which deals with UCC, is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
2 Goa is the only state in India that has had a common civil code applicable to all citizens irrespective of religion, inherited from Portuguese rule.
3 Uttarakhand became the first state to legislatively enact a UCC after independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. Article 44 falls under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36-51) and directs the State to secure a uniform civil code. Goa has operated under a common family law since its liberation in 1961, inherited from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 — it applies equally to all religions with mandatory civil registration of marriages and equal inheritance.
Uttarakhand enacted the Uttarakhand UCC Act in February 2024, becoming the first state to legislatively create a UCC post-independence (effective January 2025). Gujarat followed as the second state in March 2026.
Uttarakhand enacted the Uttarakhand UCC Act in February 2024, becoming the first state to legislatively create a UCC post-independence (effective January 2025). Gujarat followed as the second state in March 2026.
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UCC timeline: Goa (1961, Portuguese origin) — Uttarakhand (Feb 2024, effective Jan 2025) — Gujarat (Mar 2026). The 21st Law Commission (2018) said UCC is “neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.” Key cases: Shah Bano (1985), Sarla Mudgal (1995), Jose Paulo Coutinho v. Maria Luiza (2019). Articles 25 and 26 (freedom of religion) create constitutional tension with UCC. DPSPs are non-justiciable (Article 37) but fundamental in governance.
Question 27 of 30
Consider the following statements about India Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR):
1 India has operational SPR facilities at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
2 The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
3 India currently imports approximately ~88% of its crude oil requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 India has operational SPR facilities at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
2 The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
3 India currently imports approximately ~88% of its crude oil requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. India has three SPR facilities: Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT, Andhra Pradesh), Mangaluru (1.5 MMT, Karnataka), and Padur (2.5 MMT, Karnataka) — total 5.33 MMT providing about 9.5 days of consumption cover. ISPRL is a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
India imports ~88% of its crude oil, making it the third-largest oil importer globally after China and the USA.
India imports ~88% of its crude oil, making it the third-largest oil importer globally after China and the USA.
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SPR Phase II is planned at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Padur expansion. Total planned capacity: 12 MMT (~22 days). Compare with USA SPR: 714 million barrels (~34 days), China SPR: ~40 days, Japan: ~150 days. ISPRL was established in 2004. Strait of Hormuz at narrowest: 21 nautical miles (~39 km); two 2-mile-wide shipping lanes separated by a 2-mile buffer. About 60% of India crude imports transit through Hormuz. India has 9 million diaspora in Gulf states sending ~$40 billion in annual remittances.
Question 28 of 30
Consider the following statements about the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019:
1 The Act recognises the right of transgender persons to self-perceived gender identity.
2 A certificate of identity as a transgender person is issued by the District Magistrate.
3 The Act provides for the establishment of a National Council for Transgender Persons chaired by the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 The Act recognises the right of transgender persons to self-perceived gender identity.
2 A certificate of identity as a transgender person is issued by the District Magistrate.
3 The Act provides for the establishment of a National Council for Transgender Persons chaired by the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. Section 4 of the Act recognises the right to self-perceived gender identity. Section 6 requires the District Magistrate to issue a certificate of identity. Section 16 establishes the National Council for Transgender Persons, chaired by the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, with representation from five ministries, NHRC, NCSC, NCST, NCW, NITI Aayog, and five transgender community members. The NALSA v. Union of India (2014) Supreme Court judgment was the landmark precursor that recognised third gender and directed affirmative action.
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NALSA v. Union of India (2014): Justice K.S. Radhakrishnan bench recognised third gender under Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(a), and 21. Criticism of the 2019 Act: requires District Magistrate certification (critics say this contradicts NALSA right to self-identification), criminalises begging without alternatives, no reservation provision unlike NALSA direction. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 was introduced in March 2026 to address some of these gaps. Yogyakarta Principles (2006) are the international framework for LGBTQ+ rights.
Question 29 of 30
Consider the following statements about Project 17A (Nilgiri-class) frigates of the Indian Navy:
1 Project 17A frigates are being built at both Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE).
2 These frigates feature stealth design with reduced radar cross-section and are equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.
3 INS Taragiri, commissioned in March 2026, is the seventh and final ship of the Project 17A class.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Project 17A frigates are being built at both Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE).
2 These frigates feature stealth design with reduced radar cross-section and are equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.
3 INS Taragiri, commissioned in March 2026, is the seventh and final ship of the Project 17A class.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Project 17A frigates are being built at two shipyards — four at MDL (Mumbai) and three at GRSE (Kolkata), for a total of seven ships. They feature advanced stealth design with reduced radar cross-section (RCS), infrared signature suppression, and are armed with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles along with Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles.
Statement 3 is incorrect — INS Taragiri is the fourth ship of the class (built at MDL, launched September 2022, commissioning April 2026), not the seventh and final. The seven ships are: INS Nilgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Taragiri, and a 4th from MDL; plus INS Himgiri, INS Dunagiri, INS Vindhyagiri from GRSE.
Statement 3 is incorrect — INS Taragiri is the fourth ship of the class (built at MDL, launched September 2022, commissioning April 2026), not the seventh and final. The seven ships are: INS Nilgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Taragiri, and a 4th from MDL; plus INS Himgiri, INS Dunagiri, INS Vindhyagiri from GRSE.
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Project 17A (Nilgiri-class) vs Project 17 (Shivalik-class): 17A is a follow-on with improved stealth and indigenous content (~75%). Displacement ~6,670 tonnes. MDL ships: Nilgiri, Udaygiri, Taragiri, (4th unnamed). GRSE ships: Himgiri, Dunagiri, Vindhyagiri (+ Mahendragiri, 7th). Key weapons: BrahMos Block III, Barak-8 LRSAM. Propulsion: CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas). The class is named after mountains — reviving names from the original Nilgiri-class (1972).
Question 30 of 30
Consider the following statements about biodiversity hotspots in India:
1 India has four biodiversity hotspots — the Western Ghats, the Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland.
2 To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must have at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and must have lost at least 70% of its primary native vegetation.
3 India is one of the 17 megadiverse countries identified by the World Conservation Monitoring Centre (WCMC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 India has four biodiversity hotspots — the Western Ghats, the Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland.
2 To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must have at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and must have lost at least 70% of its primary native vegetation.
3 India is one of the 17 megadiverse countries identified by the World Conservation Monitoring Centre (WCMC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Norman Myers criteria for biodiversity hotspots require at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species AND loss of at least 70% of primary vegetation. India is indeed one of the 17 megadiverse countries as identified by the World Conservation Monitoring Centre (WCMC).
Statement 1 is incorrect — India has four biodiversity hotspots, but they are the Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, the Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland (Nicobar Islands). The “Eastern Himalayas” is not the precise designation — the hotspot covers the entire Himalayan range.
Sundaland includes the Nicobar Islands.
Statement 1 is incorrect — India has four biodiversity hotspots, but they are the Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, the Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland (Nicobar Islands). The “Eastern Himalayas” is not the precise designation — the hotspot covers the entire Himalayan range.
Sundaland includes the Nicobar Islands.
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The 36 global biodiversity hotspots (revised from 25 by Conservation International). India 4 hotspots: Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Sundaland (Nicobar Islands). 17 megadiverse countries hold ~70% of global biodiversity: India, Brazil, China, Indonesia, Mexico, South Africa, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, USA, Australia, Madagascar, Philippines, PNG, DRC, Malaysia, Venezuela. India has ~7-8% of all recorded species on just 2.4% of global land area. Nagoya Protocol (ratified by India in October 2012; entered into force globally in 2014) governs access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources.
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