Daily Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz — March 13, 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
10 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
10 MCQs
Explanations
Statistics
Timed
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 10
India surpassed China as the largest supplier of cotton products to the United States. What primarily drove this shift in trade flows?
US tariffs on Chinese goods — ranging from 10% to 125% across various product categories under Section 301 investigations — made Chinese cotton products significantly more expensive for American importers, who diversified to India. India, with its large textile manufacturing base, competitive labour costs, and quality cotton production in states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana, became the primary beneficiary of this supply chain diversion.
India’s total textile and apparel exports are approximately $44 billion per year, with the USA as the largest single export market.
India’s total textile and apparel exports are approximately $44 billion per year, with the USA as the largest single export market.
💡 Concept Note
India is the world’s largest cotton producer (surpassing China in recent years) and among the largest textile exporters globally. The US-China trade war, begun in 2018 under the Trump administration and continued by subsequent administrations, has systematically created supply chain diversion opportunities for India in electronics, textiles, and pharmaceuticals.
The PLI (Production-Linked Incentive) Scheme for Textiles (Rs 10,683 crore) targets man-made fibre and technical textiles to complement India’s traditional cotton strength.
The PLI (Production-Linked Incentive) Scheme for Textiles (Rs 10,683 crore) targets man-made fibre and technical textiles to complement India’s traditional cotton strength.
Question 2 of 10
The two new lichen moth species discovered by ZSI in the eastern Himalayas are classified as bioindicators. What does this mean in ecological terms?
Lichen moths feed on lichens, which are themselves extremely sensitive to air pollution (particularly SO2 and heavy metal particulates) and disappear from polluted areas. Therefore, the presence of lichen moths signals clean air, intact habitat, and good ecosystem health — making them bioindicators of air quality and ecological integrity.
The two new species discovered by ZSI were Caulocera hollowayi (from Golitar, Sikkim) and Asura buxa (from Panijhora, West Bengal, near Buxa Tiger Reserve).
The two new species discovered by ZSI were Caulocera hollowayi (from Golitar, Sikkim) and Asura buxa (from Panijhora, West Bengal, near Buxa Tiger Reserve).
💡 Concept Note
Bioindicators are species whose presence, abundance, or health reflects the condition of their environment. Other key examples: Lichens (air pollution indicators), Mayfly larvae (clean freshwater), Vultures (ecosystem health and carrion removal), Gharial (clean river water — found in Chambal and Girwa rivers).
ZSI (Zoological Survey of India) is headquartered in Kolkata, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is also a Project Elephant reserve located on the India-Bhutan border.
ZSI (Zoological Survey of India) is headquartered in Kolkata, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is also a Project Elephant reserve located on the India-Bhutan border.
Question 3 of 10
Asteroid 2024 YR4 is classified as an Apollo-type asteroid. What defines the Apollo asteroid category?
Apollo asteroids are a class of near-Earth asteroids (NEAs) whose orbits cross Earth’s orbit — technically defined as having a semi-major axis greater than 1 AU and a perihelion distance less than Earth’s aphelion distance (q less than 1.017 AU). This makes them potentially hazardous if their path intersects Earth’s position.
Asteroid 2024 YR4 was discovered by the ATLAS (Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System) telescope and is approximately 53-67 metres in diameter. NASA’s Planetary Defense Coordination Office (PDCO) monitors such objects.
Asteroid 2024 YR4 was discovered by the ATLAS (Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System) telescope and is approximately 53-67 metres in diameter. NASA’s Planetary Defense Coordination Office (PDCO) monitors such objects.
💡 Concept Note
Near-Earth asteroid categories: Apollo (orbit crosses Earth’s orbit, semi-major axis greater than 1 AU), Aten (orbit mostly inside Earth’s orbit, semi-major axis less than 1 AU), Amor (orbit between Earth’s and Mars’s, does not cross Earth’s orbit — option D in this question describes Amor asteroids). Potentially Hazardous Asteroids (PHAs) are NEAs that approach within 0.05 AU of Earth and are larger than 140 metres.
India’s contribution to planetary defence: ISRO’s Space Situational Awareness framework and ARIES (Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences) in Nainital tracks near-Earth objects (NEOs).
India’s contribution to planetary defence: ISRO’s Space Situational Awareness framework and ARIES (Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences) in Nainital tracks near-Earth objects (NEOs).
Question 4 of 10
The Chhattisgarh Freedom of Religion Bill — and similar state-level legislation — engages which Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Anti-conversion laws engage Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution, which collectively guarantee the Right to Freedom of Religion: Article 25 (freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health), Article 26 (freedom to manage religious affairs), Article 27 (freedom from paying taxes for promotion of any particular religion), and Article 28 (freedom from religious instruction in wholly state-funded institutions).
💡 Concept Note
The Supreme Court in Rev. Stainislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1977) held that the right to propagate religion under Article 25 does not include the right to convert others by force, fraud, or allurement — upholding the validity of state anti-conversion laws.
States with such laws: Odisha (Freedom of Religion Act, 1967 — India’s oldest), MP, Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, UP. Critics argue these laws restrict freedom of conscience — the right to change one’s own religion — which is separately protected under Article 25 itself.
States with such laws: Odisha (Freedom of Religion Act, 1967 — India’s oldest), MP, Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, UP. Critics argue these laws restrict freedom of conscience — the right to change one’s own religion — which is separately protected under Article 25 itself.
Question 5 of 10
The PMFME (PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises) Scheme operates on which specific approach to identify and support food processing enterprises in each district?
PMFME operates on the One District One Product (ODOP) approach — each district identifies a specific food product that is traditional, geographically appropriate, or has market potential (examples: Muzaffarpur litchi for Bihar, Joha rice for Assam districts, Kolhapuri jaggery for certain Maharashtra districts). Support — credit linkage, technical assistance, branding, market access — is concentrated on building a competitive ecosystem around this ODOP. The scheme was launched in 2020 under the AatmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan with an outlay of Rs 10,000 crore over five years.
💡 Concept Note
PMFME targets the formalisation of 2 lakh micro food enterprises by bringing them under GST registration, FSSAI licensing, and formal credit. Ministry: Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
ODOP was originally launched as a scheme by the Uttar Pradesh government and was later adopted nationally under DPIIT. Tezpur University (Assam) hosts a Common Incubation Centre under PMFME. The micro food processing sector employs approximately 74 lakh enterprises, many of which are home-based and run by women self-help groups (SHGs).
ODOP was originally launched as a scheme by the Uttar Pradesh government and was later adopted nationally under DPIIT. Tezpur University (Assam) hosts a Common Incubation Centre under PMFME. The micro food processing sector employs approximately 74 lakh enterprises, many of which are home-based and run by women self-help groups (SHGs).
Question 6 of 10
Joha rice, exported internationally from Assam, holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Under which legislation and which registry are GI tags administered in India?
GI tags in India are registered under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, enacted to comply with the TRIPS Agreement (WTO) obligations. The GI Registry is under the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), based in Chennai, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (DPIIT).
Joha rice is a short-grain aromatic rice indigenous to Assam, valued in international markets for its distinctive fragrance and taste.
Joha rice is a short-grain aromatic rice indigenous to Assam, valued in international markets for its distinctive fragrance and taste.
💡 Concept Note
India has over 600 registered GI-tagged products — among the highest in South Asia. Famous Indian GIs: Darjeeling Tea (India’s first GI, 2004), Basmati Rice, Kanchipuram Silk, Mysore Silk, Alphonso Mango (Ratnagiri), Kolhapuri Chappal, Pashmina.
GI protection prevents misuse of origin-linked product names — for example, only tea actually grown in Darjeeling can be sold as Darjeeling tea. GI status can command premium export prices and protects traditional livelihoods.
GI protection prevents misuse of origin-linked product names — for example, only tea actually grown in Darjeeling can be sold as Darjeeling tea. GI status can command premium export prices and protects traditional livelihoods.
Question 7 of 10
Purple Fest at Rashtrapati Bhavan celebrated Divyangjan under the Accessible India Campaign. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 increased recognised disability categories from 7 to how many?
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 expanded recognised disability categories from 7 (under the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995) to 21. New additions include autism spectrum disorder, specific learning disabilities (dyslexia, dyscalculia), chronic neurological conditions, blood disorders (haemophilia, thalassaemia, sickle cell disease), speech and language disability, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, and dwarfism.
India ratified the UN Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) in 2007.
India ratified the UN Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) in 2007.
💡 Concept Note
Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan) was launched in December 2015 to make public spaces, transport, and information technology accessible to persons with disabilities. The term Divyangjan — coined by PM Modi — reframes disability as divine ability.
Key mandates under RPwD Act 2016: 5% reservation in higher education institutions, 4% reservation in government jobs (sub-categorised across disability types), accessible voting infrastructure, sign-language interpreters in courts, and barrier-free built environments.
Key mandates under RPwD Act 2016: 5% reservation in higher education institutions, 4% reservation in government jobs (sub-categorised across disability types), accessible voting infrastructure, sign-language interpreters in courts, and barrier-free built environments.
Question 8 of 10
The world's first Autonomous Maritime Shipbuilding and Systems Centre, established in India, aligns with which national maritime policy vision?
The Autonomous Maritime Shipbuilding and Systems Centre aligns with Maritime India Vision 2030, which targets positioning India among the top ten nations in maritime trade, shipbuilding, and port efficiency by 2030. It also aligns with the Make in India initiative for the defence sector.
India’s major shipbuilders — MDL (Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders, Mumbai), GRSE (Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, Kolkata), HSL (Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Visakhapatnam), and CSL (Cochin Shipyard Limited) — are central to this vision.
India’s major shipbuilders — MDL (Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders, Mumbai), GRSE (Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, Kolkata), HSL (Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Visakhapatnam), and CSL (Cochin Shipyard Limited) — are central to this vision.
💡 Concept Note
Maritime India Vision 2030 covers: port modernisation under Sagarmala Phase II, maritime tourism (cruise tourism, lighthouse development), shipbuilding (India’s ship recycling industry at Alang, Gujarat is among the world’s largest), seafarer training (Indian Maritime University, Chennai), and blue economy (deep-sea mining under Deep Ocean Mission, fisheries, aquaculture). India currently accounts for approximately 1% of global shipbuilding output — well below its potential given existing shipyard capacity and a large skilled workforce.
Question 9 of 10
Para athletics classification for the T63 category (in which Shailesh Kumar competed) refers to athletes with which type of impairment?
T63 in para athletics classification refers to athletes with a single below-knee amputation (or equivalent limb deficiency) who compete using a running prosthesis. The classification system: T = Track events, F = Field events only; numbers in the 60s = limb deficiency; T63 = single below-knee amputation with prosthesis; T64 = single above-knee amputation or equivalent.
India has strong performance in T63 and T64 events at the Paralympic Games.
India has strong performance in T63 and T64 events at the Paralympic Games.
💡 Concept Note
Para athletics classifications are set by World Para Athletics (under World Athletics, formerly IAAF). At the Paris 2024 Paralympics, India won 29 medals (7 Gold, 9 Silver, 13 Bronze) — its best-ever performance.
Key Indian para athletes: Sumit Antil (F64 Javelin — Paralympic world record holder), Praveen Kumar (T64 High Jump — gold, Paris 2024), Avani Lekhara (Para Shooting — 2 golds at Paris 2024), Nishad Kumar (T47 High Jump). The Paralympic movement in India is governed by the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI).
Key Indian para athletes: Sumit Antil (F64 Javelin — Paralympic world record holder), Praveen Kumar (T64 High Jump — gold, Paris 2024), Avani Lekhara (Para Shooting — 2 golds at Paris 2024), Nishad Kumar (T47 High Jump). The Paralympic movement in India is governed by the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI).
Question 10 of 10
The 1954 Hague Convention protects which type of assets during armed conflict?
The 1954 Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict protects movable and immovable cultural property — museums, monuments, archives, libraries, works of art, and scientific collections — from destruction and looting during war. It has two Protocols: Protocol I (1954, preventing export of cultural property from occupied territory) and Protocol II (1999, enhanced protection regime, individual criminal responsibility for deliberate destruction).
💡 Concept Note
India ratified the 1954 Hague Convention in 1958. Famous cultural property destruction in recent history: Buddhas of Bamiyan (Afghanistan, 2001, by Taliban); Palmyra ruins (Syria, 2015, by ISIS); Mosul Museum (Iraq, 2015).
The ICC (International Criminal Court) convicted Ahmad Al-Mahdi (Mali, 2016) as the first person sentenced specifically for intentional destruction of cultural heritage as a war crime. UNESCO manages the World Heritage List of sites deserving protection under these norms.
The ICC (International Criminal Court) convicted Ahmad Al-Mahdi (Mali, 2016) as the first person sentenced specifically for intentional destruction of cultural heritage as a war crime. UNESCO manages the World Heritage List of sites deserving protection under these norms.
–
/ 10
Performance
✓
Correct
0
✗
Incorrect
0
%
Accuracy
0%
⏱
Time Taken
–
Question-wise Result